fun = @(x) 80*exp(-((x-pi)/0.002).^2);
I = quad(fun,0,6)
I2= integral(fun,0,6)
I =
0
I2 =
1.464129900321425e-69
Why do I get 0 when using quad?
Best regards Aldo

답변 (2개)

Walter Roberson
Walter Roberson 2016년 11월 11일
편집: Walter Roberson 2016년 11월 11일

1 개 추천

The two use different adaptive techniques. The function has a sharp peak at Pi and one technique misses it completely and the other barely catches it. The actual integral over that range is (2/25*(erf(500*Pi)+erf(3000-500*Pi)))*sqrt(Pi) which is about 0.284
To get a better answer:
integral(fun,0,6,'Waypoints', pi)

댓글 수: 2

Aldo
Aldo 2016년 11월 11일
And how should you go about to solve it with Quad?
I wouldn't solve it with quad(). I might solve it with quadgk
quadgk(fun,0,6, 'waypoints', pi)

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KSSV
KSSV 2016년 11월 11일

0 개 추천

You are trying to calculate the area under the curve as shown in the attached image. See the values on the axes, so I think getting zero is legitimate.

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