Why is the FFT of a constant returns 0 for the angle?
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Is there an explanation to this? Thank you in advance.
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Symmetry, for one thing. A real symmetric signal always has a real symmetric spectrum, and real-valued spectra have 0 phase.
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도움말 센터 및 File Exchange에서 Spectral Measurements에 대해 자세히 알아보기
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