Can anyone explain why fft is giving a maximum amplitude at 0 Hz if the actual signal is pretty clear?
In my code, x is the signal as a function of time and r = length(x):
NFFT = 2^nextpow2(r);
X = fft(x,NFFT)/r;
Fs = 1/dt; % sampling frequency
f = Fs/2*linspace(0,1,NFFT/2+1); % frequency
A = 2*abs(X(1:NFFT/2+1)); % ampitude spectrum

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Aimie
Aimie 2012년 6월 28일
I should mention that I do get a second peak in the frequency at around 200 Hz, which is exactly what I want. I just want to get rid of the maximum peak occurring at 0 Hz...

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Honglei Chen
Honglei Chen 2012년 6월 28일

0 개 추천

You need to remove the DC component first. Just do
x = x-mean(x)
or
x = detrend(x)
before applying FFT

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Aimie
Aimie 2012년 6월 28일
Thanks! This works great. I had tried to do something similar by using
x = x - x(1)
but using detrend was a much better way to go (but I didn't know about that function before).
Iftakharul alam
Iftakharul alam 2020년 7월 28일
Dear Honglei Chen,
really appreciated to see you answer!
Thank you so much.

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